‘Does the Qur’an intend to ‘correct’ the previous scriptures?’

In this post (see below) I try to respond to the argument that the Qur’an is implicitly teaching the textual corruption of the previous scriptures, by intentionally ‘correcting’ them.

Do share your thoughts below or on the post itself 🙂

PS: In my next post I hope to address some of the hadith that relate to this topic, so if you wish to discuss those hadith, you may wish to hold off until the next post.

Categories: Islam

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