Jesus’ native language was Aramaic. The Aramaic translation of the gospels present Jesus praying to and praising the God Whom he worshiped, naming him AaLah or AaLoh (the ‘Eastern’ and ‘Western’ vocalisations).
Jesus surrendered to his Lord, and his words (whether or not they are authentically preserved) indicate perfect slavehood to El/Elohim (Hebrew), AaLaH (Aramaic), Allaha (Syriac), Allah, the true name of the One God of Abraham.
Say: O People of the Scripture! Come to a common word between us and you: that we shall worship none but Allah, and that we shall ascribe no partner unto Him, and that none of us shall take others for lords beside Allah. And if they turn away, then say: Bear witness that we are they who have surrendered (unto Him).
Yup! If we want to follow Jesus just worship Allah, the true name of the One God of Abraham. Don’t worship Jesus or other gods.
Jesus NEVER said “Allah”! Please watch to the end and see why. Thank you.
Lousy deceptive video; not to mention disrespecting the Jews on the ineffable Name as well as the ancient Semitic linguistics and Hebrew language itself. There were no vowels in Hebrew, so don’t put strawmen on Paul Williams. By the way, the Aramaic gospel of John says “Alaha” so your oaken argument is cut down.
Very true. Was the Catholic theologian in question referring to the Ebionites? Also did that involve James The Just? Or is this another group? I’m wondering if it was specified. Thanks.
Forgive me, but I fail to see how linguistic similarity equals doctrinal similarity. The countless Church Fathers, such as St Ephrem the Syrian, Babai the Great and St Jacob of Mygdonia, spoke Aramaic and used the term ʼĔlāhā, or Alaha in their writings and hymns, as indeed do Syriac and Assyrian Christians to this day.
Christ told informed his Apostles that if they followed him they would be ‘sons of your Father in heaven’. Given that no pious Muslim may refer to himself as son of God, even in a metaphorical sense, Christ can not be seen as preaching a specifically Islamic form of monotheism. Aramaic does utilises words that are similar to Arabic, but it is incorrect to assume that these would imply doctrinal uniformity.
Toby, you’re quoting the Canonical Greek Gospel of Matthew, which was neither authored/authorized approved by Jesus or by Matthew the disciple of Jesus that bears his name… how do you know Jesus actually uttered these words? 🙂
Toby, have a read – https://bloggingtheology.com/2020/09/21/perhaps-surprisingly-the-catholic-church-gets-just-jesus-about-right-in-a-tweet-today/ 🙂
Heres my favorite interview by bill maher