In an article by Ken on his blog entitled Moses wrote about Jesus the Messiah Ken insists (in reply to an earlier article by me on this blog) that “Moses DID write and predict Him” – ie Jesus’ death and resurrection – because the New Testament says so! This is a curious piece of irrelevancy and circular reasoning.
Ken fails to provide a single actual quotation from the Pentateuch where Moses allegedly mentions Jesus’ life, death and resurrection! This is because it does not exist. Here is the embarrassing discussion on Apologetics and Agape:
Thanks for your comment Paul.
It is not “evangelical spin” because the first century Jews and NT writers who accepted Jesus as the Son of God and Messiah – they are the ones who tell us the proper interpretation of the OT.
Jesus Al Masih المسیح says Himself that these are His words and that He taught the disciples these things, and He says that all three sections of the OT (Law of Moses, Prophets and Psalms / Writings all prophesied about Him and those three issues in verses 46-47 (agreeing with earlier, 24:25-27 and agreeing with John in John 5;46 and the apostle’s Paul’s writings – Galatians 3:6-8; 14-16 – Galatians 3:16 points back to the promise given to Abraham is fulfilled in the Messiah – he even makes the argument based on the singular in grammar, not the plural. (seed, not seeds) “Seed” in the promise is ultimately to one, that is Messiah.
Thus it is written (in the law, the prophets and the Psalms, “the things concerning Me” – verse 44 – Jesus reminded them that He taught them these things before)
that the Messiah
1. is to suffer and die
2. to rise from the dead on the 3rd day
3. That repentance for forgiveness of sins should be preached to all nations
This is the “blessing to all the nations” that Genesis 12:3, 18:18; 22:17-18; 26:4; 28:14; and 49:10 are pointing to. (also Genesis 3:15 – the seed of the woman who will crush the serpent’s head)
It is not “special pleading” since the whole trajectory of the OT and its theology of atonement and sacrifice in the tabernacle and temple, Isaiah 52-53; Daniel 9:24-27, etc. is the out folding of God’s plan of redemption, and the concept of the Messiah is also a Jewish understanding and does not require the word itself in many passages.
That Islam affirms that Jesus is the Al Masih (the Messiah) shows that the Jewish rejection of Him as Messiah is wrong. Islam by not knowing the details, being ignorant of many things, unknowingly “grabbed” onto the Virgin Birth, the Messiahship of Jesus, and His disciples (as true believers and those that will be victorious – Surah 3:52-55; 61:14), and His Injeel (message of “good news”; and without change to the text – 5:47; 5:68; 10:94) without realizing the contradiction to itself, thus proving Islam and the Qur’an is false.
I already answered that – the first century AD is the proper Jesus interpretation of the OT, demonstrated by the NT, the true Injeel.
I don’t have to be forced to answer your question the WAY you want it answered.
No, I will not ignore the NT, since that is the true revelation of what the OT means, which Jesus Himself said. (all through what I have already written)
Islam and the Qur’an cannot skip the NT, since by affirming:
1. Jesus as Messiah
2. Virgin born
4. the Word of God
5. His disciples as true and believers and victorious
6. the text of the NT – the book of the Christians as Injeel, has not be lost or corrupted,
7. The concept of substitutionary atonement is alluded to in Surah 37:107, (and in many Hadith) affirming the original meaning of Genesis 22, etc. which points to blood ransom atonement, (Passover, tabernacle, Leviticus, Temple, Isaiah 52-53; Daniel 9:24-27 [although Islam tries to deny it in 22:37, it just shows the inconsistency of the whole system of Islam in trying to tie itself to previous Monotheism revelations]
therefore, you cannot ignore the NT, since Islam ignorantly confirmed it.
For some inexplicable reason Ken thinks that Islam has something to do with the question I posed to him about Moses. Weird.
Categories: Bible, Christianity, Islam, Jesus